Posts on: Conditionals
I finally got around to adding the papers from Janssen-Lauret and Macbride
2023 to the search corpus at https://www.david-lewis.org. It's
a wonderful collection with lots of treasures. I want to comment on an
intriguing passage on pp.71f., from an abandoned 1969 textbook project
on confirmation theory.
First, some context. At this point in the manuscript, Lewis has
introduced \(\mathcal{M}\) as a
probability measure on the propositions expressible in a language \(\mathcal{L}\) with classical boolean
connectives; \(\mathcal{C}\) is the
associated conditional probability measure, defined by the ratio
formula. Lewis notes that conditional probabilities are often read as
"the probability of C if A", which suggests that \(\mathcal{C}(C/A)\) might equal \(\mathcal{M}(C\textit{ if }A)\), where
'\(C\textit{ if }A\)' is the material
conditional. But that's obviously false. Lewis continues:
Bare indicative conditionals are bewildering, but they become
surprisingly well-behaved if we add an 'else' clause.
Intuitively, 'if A then B' doesn't make an outright claim about the
world. It says that B is the case if A is the case – but what
if A isn't the case?
An 'else' clause resolves this question. 'If A then B else C' makes
an outright claim. It says that either B or C is the case, depending on
whether A is the case. That is: the world is either an A-world, in which
case it is also a B-world, or it is a ¬A-world, in which case it is a
C-world. For short: (A∧B)∨(¬A∧C).
According to a popular view about counterfactuals, a counterfactual hypothesis 'if A had happened…' shifts the world of evaluation to worlds that are much like the actual world until shortly before the time of A, at which point they start to deviate from the actual world in a minimal way that allows A to happen. 'If A had happened, C would have happened' is true iff all such worlds are C worlds. The time "shortly before A" when the worlds start to deviate is the fork time.
Now remember the case of Pollock's coat (introduced in Nute (1980)). John Pollock considered 'if my coat had been stolen last night…'. He stipulates that there were two occasions on which the coat could have been stolen. By the standards of Lewis (1979), worlds where it was stolen on the second occasion are more similar to the actual world than worlds where it was stolen on the first occasion. Lewis's similarity semantics therefore predicts that if the coat had been stolen, it would have been stolen on the second occasion. This doesn't seem right.
In this post, I'll develop an RSA model that explains why 'if A or B then C' is usually taken to imply 'if A then C' and 'if B then C', even if the conditional has a Lewis/Stalnaker ("similarity") semantics, where the inference is invalid.
I'll write 'A>C' for the conditional 'if A then C'. For the purposes of this post, we assume that 'A>C' is true at a world w iff all the closest A worlds to w are C worlds, by some contextually fixed measure of closeness.
It has often been observed that the simplification effect resembles the "Free Choice" effect, i.e., the apparent entailment of '◇A' and '◇B' by '◇(A∨B)', where the diamond is a possibility modal (permission, in the standard example). But there are also important differences.
Has it been noted that McGee conditionals seem to clash with the Simplification of Disjunctive Antecedents (SDA)?
Consider the following conditional, inspired by McGee (1985).
(1) If a Republican had won then if it hadn't been Reagan then it would have been Andersen.
For context, imagine a scenario in which there were exactly two Republican candidates for the office in question, called Reagan and Andersen. Neither won. In this kind of context, (1) seems fine. So does (2).
(2) If Reagan or Andersen had won then if Reagan hadn't won then Andersen would have won.
Now, SDA (in its strong form) is the hypothesis that a conditional of the form 'if A or B then C' is equivalent to the conjunction of 'if A then C' and 'if B then C'. Applying this to (2), we would predict that (2) is equivalent to the conjunction of (3) and (4).
Champollion, Ciardelli, and Zhang (2016) argue that truth-conditionally equivalent sentences can make different contributions to the truth-conditions of larger sentences in which they embed. This seems obviously true. 'There are infinitely many primes' and Fermat's Last Theorem are truth-conditionally equivalent, but 'I can prove that there are infinitely many primes' is true, while 'I can prove that there are no integers a, b, c, and n > 2 for which an + bn = cn' is false. Champollion, Ciardelli, and Zhang (henceforth, CCZ) have a more interesting case in mind. They argue that substituting logically equivalent sentences in the antecedent of a subjunctive conditional can make a difference to the conditional's truth-value.
Gallow (2023) spells out an interventionist theory of counterfactuals that promises to preserve two apparently incompatible intuitions.
Suppose the laws of nature are deterministic. What would have happened if you had chosen some act that you didn't actually choose? The two apparently incompatible intuitions are:
(A1) Had you chosen differently, no law of nature would have been violated.
(A2) Had you chosen differently, the initial conditions of the universe would not have been changed.
Rejecting one of these intuitions is widely thought to spell trouble for Causal Decision Theory. Gallow argues that they can both be respected. I'll explain how. Then I'll explain why I'm not convinced.
A lot of rather technical papers on conditionals have come out in recent years. Let's have a look at one of them: Kocurek (2022).
The paper investigates Al Hajek's argument (e.g. in Hájek (2021)) that "chance undermines would". It begins with a neat observation.
A Sobel sequence is a sequence of conditionals with increasingly strong
antecedent. Lewis used Sobel sequences to motivate his "variably strict"
analysis of counterfactuals.
For example, intuitively (1) and (2) might both be
true, which seems to contradict a simple strict analysis:
(1) If the US had destroyed its nuclear weapons in 1965, there would have
been war.
(2) If every country destroyed its nuclear weapons in 1965, there would
have been peace.
Gibbard's 1981 paper "Two recent theories of conditionals" contains
a famous passage about a poker game on a riverboat.
Sly Pete and Mr. Stone are playing poker on a Mississippi
riverboat. It is now up to Pete to call or fold. My henchman Zack sees
Stone's hand, which is quite good, and signals its content to Pete. My
henchman Jack sees both hands, and sees that Pete's hand is rather
low, so that Stone's is the winning hand. At this point, the room is
cleared. A few minutes later, Zack slips me a note which says "If Pete
called, he won," and Jack slips me a note which says "If Pete called,
he lost." I know that these notes both come from my trusted henchmen,
but do not know which of them sent which note. I conclude that Pete
folded.
One puzzle raised by this scenario is that it seems perfectly
appropriate for Zack and Jack to assert the relevant conditionals, and
neither Zack nor Jack has any false information. So it seems that the
conditionals should both be true. But then we'd have to deny that 'if
p then q' and 'if p then not-q' are contrary.
It has often been pointed out that the probability of an indicative
conditional 'if A then B' seems to equal the corresponding conditional
probability P(B/A). Similarly, the probability of a subjunctive
conditional 'if A were the case then B would be the case' seems to
equal the corresponding subjunctive conditional probability
P(B//A). Trying to come up with a semantics of conditionals that
validates these equalities proves tricky. Nonetheless, people keep
trying, buying into all sorts of crazy ideas to make the equalities
come out true.
A might counterfactual is a statement of the form 'if so-and-so were
the case then such-and-such might be the case'. I used to think that
there are different kinds of might counterfactuals: that sometimes
the 'might' takes scope over the entire conditional, and other times
it does not.
For example, suppose we have an indeterministic coin that we don't
toss. In this context, I'd say (1) is true and (2) is false.
(1) If I had tossed the coin it might have landed heads.
(2) If I had tossed the coin it would have landed heads.
These intuitions are controversial. But if they are correct, then the
might counterfactual (1) can't express that the corresponding would
counterfactual is epistemically possible. For we know that the would
counterfactual is false. That is, the 'might' here doesn't scope over
the conditional. Rather, the might counterfactual (1) seems to express
the dual of the would counterfactual (2), as Lewis suggested in
Counterfactuals: 'if A then might B' seems to be equivalent to
'not: if A then would not-B'.
Is 'can' information-sensitive in an interesting way, like 'ought'?
An example of uninteresting information-sensitivity is (1):
(1) If you can lift this backpack, then you can also lift that bag.
Informally speaking, the if-clause takes wide scope in (1). The
truth-value of the consequent 'you can lift that bag' varies from
world to world, and the if-clause directs us to evaluate the statement
at worlds where the antecedent is true.
The following principles have something in common.
Conditional Coordination Principle.
A rational person's credence in a conditional A->B should equal the
ratio of her credence in the corresponding propositions B and A&B;
that is, Cr(A->B) = Cr(B/A) = Cr(B)/Cr(A&B).
Normative Coordination Principle.
On the supposition that A is what should be done, a rational agent
should be motivated to do A; that is, very roughly, Des(A/Ought(A))
> 0.5.
Probability Coordination Principle.
On the supposition that the chance of A is x, a rational agent
should assign credence x to A; that is, roughly, Cr(A/Ch(A)=x) = x.
Nomic Coordination Principle.
On the supposition that it is a law of nature that A, a rational agent
should assign credence 1 to A; that is, Cr(A/L(A)) = 1.
All these principles claim that an agent's attitudes towards a certain
kind of proposition rationally constrain their attitudes towards other
propositions.
Most programming languages have conditional operators that combine a
(boolean) condition and two singular terms into a singular term. For
example, in Python the expression
'hi' if 2 < 7 else 'hello'
is a singular term whose value is the string 'hi' (because 2 < 7). In
general, the expression
x if p else y
denotes x in case p is true and otherwise y. So, for example,
In her 2012 paper "Subjunctive
Credences and Semantic Humility" (2012), Sarah Moss presents an
interesting case due to John Hawthorne.
Suppose that it is unlikely that you perform a certain physical
movement M tomorrow, though in the unlikely event that you
contract a rare disease D, the chance of your performing M is
high. Suppose also that the combination of contracting D and
performing M causes death. Then many judge that the objective
chance of 'if you were to perform M tomorrow, you would die' is low,
but the conditional objective chance of this subjunctive given that
you perform M is high.
The intuitive judgments Moss reports are
Here is a coin. What would have happened if I had just tossed it?
It might have landed heads, and it might have landed tails. If the
coin is biased towards tails, it is more likely that it would have
landed heads. If it's a fair coin, both outcomes are equally
likely. That is, they are equally likely on the supposition that
the coin had been tossed. Let's write this as P(Heads // Toss) =
1/2, where the double slash indicates that the supposition in question
is "subjunctive" rather than "indicative".
I like a broadly Kratzerian account of conditionals. On this account, the function of if-clauses is to restrict the space of possibilities on which the rest
of the sentence is evaluated. For example, in a sentence of the form
'the probability that if A then B is x', the if-clause restricts the
space of possibilities to those where A is true; the probability of B
relative to this restricted space is x iff the unrestricted
conditional probability of B given A is x. This account therefore
valides something that sounds exactly like
"Stalnaker's Thesis" for indicative conditionals:
In today's installment we take a look at the "imaging analysis" of subjunctive conditional probability. We will find that the analysis is fairly empty, and therefore fairly safe. In particular, it seems invulnerable to a worry that Robbie Williams recently raised in a comment on his blog. Let's begin with an example.
What if the government hadn't bailed out the banks? Some
of them would almost certainly have gone bankrupt, and other
companies would probably have followed.
Here we have some sort of conditional probabilities: "if A, then probably/almost certainly C". But they aren't ordinary conditional
probabilities of the kind that go in the ratio formula, P(A/B) =
P(AB)/P(B). I do not believe that if the government actually
didn't bail out the banks (but only made everyone believe it did),
then some of the banks went bankrupt. That is, my ordinary
conditional probability in the bankruptcies given that there was no
bailout is fairly low. Nevertheless, I believe that if the government
hadn't bailed out the banks, some of them would probably have
gone bankrupt. My subjunctive conditional probability in the
bankruptcies given no-bailout is high.
Here is an attempt at an argument against formulating causal decision theory in
terms of counterfactuals (loosely following up on the discussion in the previous
post). The point seems rather obvious, so it is probably old. Does anyone know?
Suppose you would like to go for a walk, but only if it's not
raining. Unfortunately, it is raining heavily, so you have
almost decided to stay inside. Then you remember Gibbard and
Harper's paper "Counterfactuals and two kinds of expected
utility".
There is a mistake on page 49 of Lewis's "Counterfactual dependence
and time's arrow" (1979). Since the mistake seems to be repeated all the
time, it might be worth pointing it out.
Page 49 is where Lewis lists similarity standards for his analysis
of counterfactuals. The analysis, recall, says that "if A were the
case, then C" is true iff the closest A-worlds are C-worlds (or, more
precisely, iff either there are no A-worlds or some A&C-worlds are
closer to the actual world than any A&~C world). Closeness is a matter
of similarity, and Lewis indicates what the relevant respects of
similarity might be for certain ordinary counterfactuals in section
3.3 of his 1973 book, and again in the 1979 article on counterfactual
dependence. Roughly, the closest A-worlds are those that perfectly
match the actual world across as much of spacetime as possible without
diverse and widespread violations of the actual laws. This won't do
for indeterministic worlds, where generally no laws need to be
violated at all in order to ensure perfect match of futures even after
earlier divergence. So Lewis restricts his standards to deterministic
worlds, returning to the indeterministic case in the 1986 postscript
to the 1979 paper.
Speaking of chapter six, Williamson here argues that the sentence
1) if an animal escaped from the zoo, it would be a monkey
is not adequately formalized as
1')
on the grounds that according to (1'), even the elephants are such that they would be monkeys if they escaped from the zoo. Williamson suggests that an adequate formalization might rather go like this:
A time traveler offers you a game. You can toss a fair coin. If it lands heads, you win $2; if it lands tails, you lose $1. The time traveler informs you that all fair coins tossed today will land tails. (He knows, because he's seen all the results before traveling back in time.) Do you play?
Suppose you decide to toss. Trusting the time traveler, you can then be confident that you will lose $1. You would not have lost anything if you hadn't tossed, so the alternative option would have been better. It seems that you've made the wrong decision.
Carrie, Joe and Brit have recently commented on Williamson's proposal that modal knowledge is based on counterfactual knowledge. I share their suspicion, partly for the reasons Carrie mentions: the mere fact that statements about necessity and possibility are equivalent to counterfactuals doesn't tell us that the route to knowing the former proceeds via the latter. In fact, the assumption that we have a special cognitive faculty for knowing counterfactuals already seems odd to me. After all, we don't have special faculties for knowing indicatives or negations or conjunctions.
Lewis once proposed that a 'might' counterfactual
("if A had been the case, C might have been the case") is true iff
is true. This is sometimes used in defense of controversial philosophical claims, like in Al Hájek's "Most Counterfactuals are False" and in Boris Kment's "Counterfactuals and Explanation". But at least in some cases, the analysis doesn't seem right.
This appears to be a problem for pure epistemic accounts of indicative conditionals (a la Weatherson and Chalmers), on which "if A then B" is true iff the [epistemically] closest worlds verifying A also verify B.
The match cannot be played if it rains; either it has to be postponed or canceled. Which of these will happen is regulated by the rule book, but nobody has looked up the relevant passages so far. All we know is that exactly one of these two conditionals is in the rule book, and therefore true, and the other false:
<update 2007-01-18>The poll is closed. The results are pretty much as I expected.</update>
Suppose some thing x turns F, and a little later some other thing y turns G. x is the only F throughout history, so on a Humean account of laws of nature, it may well be just a coincidence that y's being G followed x's being F. Suppose it is.
But now consider another world just like this one except that in the far future, lots of G-turnings follow lots of F-turnings so that in this world, it is a law that whenever something turns F and another thing is suitably related, then that other thing turns G. In such a world, x's turning F caused y's turning G.
Sometimes, a counterfactual is true even though the consequent is false in the closest world where the antecedent is true:
1) If Hurricane Katrina hadn't hit the town with 200 km/h, completely destroying our house, we would be at home now, watching TV.
Presumably, at the closest worlds where Hurricane Katrina doesn't hit the town with 200 km/h and completely destroys the house, it hits the town a little faster or slower, still completely destroying the house. Even at the closest worlds where the hurricane doesn't completely destroy the house, it destroys it almost completely, still preventing the TV event.
If Tina is a time traveler who is free to change the past, it must be true that
1) if Tina had chosen 1928, a time traveler would have appeared in 1928.
Moreover, this must be true on a "non-back-tracking" interpretation. A back-tracking interpretation is one on which we consider how past events would have had to be in order to cause some later event. Let's see how (1) fares on Lewis' conditions for non-back-tracking counterfactuals (in "Counterfactual Dependence and Time's Arrow").
In chapter 10 of The Varieties of Reference, Gareth Evans endorses a
counterfactual analysis of truth in games of make-believe: When children
play the mud pie game, an utterance of "Harry placed the pie in the oven"
is true (in the game) iff (roughly) it would be true given that these globs
of mud were pies and this metal object were an oven.
He then notices that this is a problem for the possible worlds analysis of
counterfactuals because the relevant counterfactuals seem to have
impossible antecedents: "there simply are no possible worlds in which these
mud pats are pies" (p.355).
It is controversial whether indicative conditionals with false antecedents
are generally true. As far as I know, which really is not very far at all,
it is equally controversial whether counterfactual conditionals with
necessarily false antecedents are generelly true. What's interesting is
the different kinds of counterexamples that are brought forward against
these views. For indicatives, the counterexamples are indicative
conditionals with false antecedents that nevertheless appear to be false,
e.g. "if I put diesel in my coffee, the coffee tastes fine." For
counterfactuals however, the alleged counterexamples (brought forward e.g.
by Field in §7.2 of Realism, Mathematics & Modality, Katz in §5
of "What mathematical knowledge could be", and Rosen in §1 of "Modal
fictionalism fixed") are counterfactual conditionals with necessarily false
antecedents that appear to be true, e.g. "if the axiom of choice
were false, the cardinals wouldn't be linearly ordered". Isn't this quite
puzzling? How can the fact that some instances are true be a problem for
a theory that claims that all instances are true?
I'm doing a visual memory test. On the table in front of me are twelve
green and fourteen red apples, and an empty basket. The lights go out, and
the instructor says to me:
"Put all the green apples into the basket". (1)
I try to do what he says. When the lights go on, you, the instructor's
assistant, are given a form on which you are to tick whether I've
correctly or incorrectly fulfilled the task. You see twelve green and two red apples in the basket. What do you tick?